Elevated HEARTRATE with normal blood pressure and EKG.

Resolved question:
Hi. Lately my heart has been slightly elevated. One day last week I was laying in the bed and my heart rate was 150. Other days it's anywhere from 58 to 95 resting. If I get up and walk around the house it's 120. I went through this same thing last year I did a 24 hr holter also a monitor for 7 days along with a treadmill test with the sonogram of my heart. Everything was normal. Then all of a sudden it went away and came back maybe once. Over the summer. Then left again again until last week. I had an EKG two nights ago and everything came back normal. My tsh is 2.1. I was told to take metoprolol 25g by the ER and then my doc prescribed propranlol 10g. Now the thing with these are my pulse upon waking without these medicines is already in the low 60's maybe 70's. And my blood pressure is already normal- low. When I took this medicine my blood pressure was way too low. Even when I split the pill in half my blood pressure was 90/60 and pulse was in the 50's. I was extremely dizzy and my arms became numb. What do u think I should do?

Submitted: 4 Days
Category: HIV- AIDS Specialist

Expert:  Dr. Jaydeep Tripathy replied 4 Days.

Hello,
Thank you for your query at DoctorSpring.com
I understand your concern.
I have noted all your possible exposures, and to answer your primary query directly since you had protected sex all the times, you do not need to worry about HIV. HIV can only be transmitted thorugh anal/vaginal penetrative sex. Unprotected oral sex can pass on infections ( other STDs ) like Herpes 2, Gonorrhoea, e.t.c
HSV-1 infection can be transmitted by kissing, and even without any such exposure a certain percentage of adult population has herpes 1 in the serum without any symptoms. That is not a reason of concern either.
I hope that answers your query,
Regards.

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Patient replied :

Thank you for the answers. Appreciate it.
I just realized that I might have peeled my dry skin close to fingernails (very small peel maybe 1mm length, hangnail type) with no active bleeding. All there could have been is a very small blood clot right after the skin peel (I'm sure you know what I'm talking about if you've experienced one). It's very slight and sometimes it just heals very fast.
I might have fingered a CW after 2 hrs from the skin peel and I am very sure there wasn't any active bleeding as such. What could have been there is the drying of the skin with what seems like a blood clot (very tiny) without active bleeding. I did not finger the woman so deep and I don't think she ejaculated.
Am I at risk?


Expert:  Dr. Jaydeep Tripathy replied 3 Days.

Hello,
Thank you for the follow up.
Yes I do realise what you are talking about, and again I will assure you there is no risk from such an exposure.
Hope this will help you,
Regards.

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Patient replied :

Thank you Dr. I recently came across a thread below and what is your take on it especially on the statement copied below:
"If she was infected AND you had cut yourself JUST before you used your finger (i.e. open, recent wound) there is a chance (still less than 1% although, to be honest it is hard to really calculate the odds)."
The link is (http://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV---Prevention/Fingering-with-cut-on-finger/show/463928)
Can I dismiss the statement, especially having 1% chance of occurence although no reported cases as such?


Expert:  Dr. Jaydeep Tripathy replied 2 Days.

Hello,
I referred the article, however in my clinical practice I have never come across a case, who got infected because of a cut in the finger.
So you can safely dismiss it without worrying.
Regards.

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Patient replied :

Thank you Dr. I recently came across a thread below and what is your take on it especially on the statement copied below:
"If she was infected AND you had cut yourself JUST before you used your finger (i.e. open, recent wound) there is a chance (still less than 1% although, to be honest it is hard to really calculate the odds)."
The link is (http://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV---Prevention/Fingering-with-cut-on-finger/show/463928)
Can I dismiss the statement, especially having 1% chance of occurence although no reported cases as such?



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